VERSION 2.0
Revised 2022
Revised 2022
PROVE ALL THINGS, HOLD FAST THAT WHICH IS GOOD
1 Thessalonians 5:21
1 Thessalonians 5:21
SECTION VIII NOTES
Verses Implying the Final Restoration of All Humankind or Hope for the Lost Beyond the Grave
Translation Issues - Eternal, Everlasting, For Ever, Etc - Isaiah 32:13-16
Upon the land of my people shall come up thorns and briers; Yea, upon all the houses of joy in the joyous city: Because the palaces shall be forsaken; The multitude of the city shall be left; The forts and towers shall be for dens for ever (Heb. olam), A joy of wild asses, a pasture of flocks; |
The concept contained within this Old Testament passage is so foreign to the average Bible student that they are prone to be entirely confused by what they have read, or miss the implication entirely. Here we have what seems to be an utter contradiction in the space of four verses. In verses 13-14 God is warning of a judgment upon the Jewish people. Notice in verse 14 how long this judgment is to last. It is to last 'FOR EVER (Heb. olam)'.
However, in verse 15 we learn that the judgment only lasts UNTIL 'the spirit be poured upon us from on high, and thee wilderness be a fruitful field, etc'. The average Bible student will never be able to resolve apparent contradictions such as this until they grasp the fact that the Greek and Hebrew words that have been rendered in our Bibles as 'eternal', 'everlasting', 'for ever', etc DO NOT MEAN ENDLESS TIME, but rather indefinite time. It is a time period, an age, in which the horizon is not in view that these words represent. |
In the case before us, the threatened judgment upon the Jewish nation - a judgment that was to last for ever - lasts only until God pours out His spirit to restore them - thus 'for ever' in this context cannot mean eternity.
While most commentators are forced to admit the truth on a verse such as this, we have to wonder - why then do they insist on such strictly literal interpretations of these words elsewhere, particularly when dealing with the ultimate fate of the unsaved?
While most commentators are forced to admit the truth on a verse such as this, we have to wonder - why then do they insist on such strictly literal interpretations of these words elsewhere, particularly when dealing with the ultimate fate of the unsaved?
Translation Issues - Romans 16:25
Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began (Gk. Aionion) |
The phrase here, 'since the world began' has been rendered from the Greek words Chronos Aionios. It is the Greek word Aionios and it's other forms (Aion, Aionion, etc) which has been almost uniformly translated as 'everlasting', 'eternal', 'for ever and ever' etc. in our English Bibles. Like the Hebrew word olam, this word carries with it the thought of perpetual time, an age, or ages, but not eternity, or a 'for ever' beyond time.
It's clear in this passage Aionion cannot mean 'eternal' or 'eternity'. The mystery of Christ was not kept hidden for eternity, but for long ages. Nearly every modern translation acknowledges this: NIV 'For long ages past', NASB 'For long ages past', ESV 'For long ages', HCSB 'For long ages', RSV 'For long ages'. |
So I have a question for the reader. Since these translators agree that the Greek word Aionion does not always carry the sense of 'everlasting', how sure are you that they have properly translated this word in connection with the punishment of the unsaved for all eternity?
Translation Issues - Revelation 11:15, 1 Corinthians 15:25, 28
And the seventh angel sounded; and there were great voices in heaven, saying, The kingdoms of this world are become the kingdoms of our Lord, and of his Christ; and he shall reign for ever and ever. (Revelation 11:15) |
Once again, there is something hidden within the two passages listed to the left that is so foreign to most Christians that it is easily missed. Once again our Bible translations and our faulty conceptions of 'eternity' have created a contradiction.
Contrary to popular belief, Jesus does not reign 'for ever and ever', and this should be clear by comparing these two passages. Jesus reigns UNTIL he has accomplished the work which God gave him to do; namely to put all enemies under his feet and to subject all things to God, after which Jesus himself subjects himself to God. Here we have another case where the Bible has presented us with something that lasts FOREVER, but only UNTIL a certain condition is met. |
There is no real contradiction in these passages. The Greek phrase rendered 'for ever and ever' is 'εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας τῶν αἰώνων' and means 'to the ages of the ages'. This phrase does NOT mean 'for ever and ever', nor does it mean countless eternal ages. Ages deal with time, not eternity. Ages OF the ages is in the Greek genitive case, thus comparing things. These are the ages above all other ages. Just as Jesus is the 'King of kings' (a king above all other kings), these ages are the ages in which Christ will rule and subject all things to God. They may be very long ages, but they are not eternal as we know from 1 Corinthians 15:25.
The Bible is clear that not even the duration of the reign of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ lasts 'for ever and ever'. How sure are you then that this phrase can be used to express the eternal torment and misery of the unsaved.
The Bible is clear that not even the duration of the reign of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ lasts 'for ever and ever'. How sure are you then that this phrase can be used to express the eternal torment and misery of the unsaved.
Theological Issues - Ezekiel 37:1-14
7:1-14The hand of the LORD was upon me, and carried me out in the spirit of the LORD, and set me down in the midst of the valley which was full of bones, And caused me to pass by them round about: and, behold, there were very many in the open valley; and, lo, they were very dry. And he said unto me, Son of man, can these bones live? And I answered, O Lord GOD, thou knowest. Again he said unto me, Prophesy upon these bones, and say unto them, O ye dry bones, hear the word of the LORD. Thus saith the Lord GOD unto these bones; Behold, I will cause breath to enter into you, and ye shall live: And I will lay sinews upon you, and will bring up flesh upon you, and cover you with skin, and put breath in you, and ye shall live; and ye shall know that I am the LORD. So I prophesied as I was commanded: and as I prophesied, there was a noise, and behold a shaking, and the bones came together, bone to his bone. And when I beheld, lo, the sinews and the flesh came up upon them, and the skin covered them above: but there was no breath in them. Then said he unto me, Prophesy unto the wind, prophesy, son of man, and say to the wind, Thus saith the Lord GOD; Come from the four winds, O breath, and breathe upon these slain, that they may live. So I prophesied as he commanded me, and the breath came into them, and they lived, and stood up upon their feet, an exceeding great army. Then he said unto me, Son of man, these bones are the whole house of Israel: behold, they say, Our bones are dried, and our hope is lost: we are cut off for our parts. Therefore prophesy and say unto them, Thus saith the Lord GOD; Behold, O my people, I will open your graves, and cause you to come up out of your graves, and bring you into the land of Israel. And ye shall know that I am the LORD, when I have opened your graves, O my people, and brought you up out of your graves, And shall put my spirit in you, and ye shall live, and I shall place you in your own land: then shall ye know that I the LORD have spoken it, and performed it, saith the LORD. |
To my evangelical and fundamentalist friends I would suggest that the passage to the left presents you with a theological problem of enormous proportions. For proponents of the doctrine of eternal torment in particular whose interpretation of so many passages depends upon a strict literalism - a literalism they often insist upon - I do believe that this passage is fatal to much your theology.
In Ezekiel chapter 37 we have described for us a resurrection. Is this resurrection figurative or literal? FOUR TIMES this chapter states that the graves of these Jewish people would be opened and they would live. How will you answer? If you say that the resurrection described in this passage is only figurative or symbolic of a national state of existence - for example, the recreation of the state of Israel in 1948, or at some future time - then I can see no reason how we should be able to know whether or not ANY passage in the Bible is literal or figurative. How can one insist that a Biblical figure such as 'The Lake of Fire' is literal, and then reject a passage such as this as figurative? Saying that this passage is figurative only exposes the fact that your entire system of theology is completely arbitrary and your willingness to 'explain away' a difficult passage - something you routinely accuse others of doing - is exposed. On the other hand, if this passage is literal, then surely not only the doctrine of eternal torment is proven false, but much of mainstream orthodox theology comes crashing down with it. If this passage is speaking of a literal resurrection (as we believe it is) then where were these dead Israelites BEFORE this resurrection? We are taught that the eternal fate of mankind is sealed at the moment of death - they are either saved or lost. Evangelicals will tell us that when people in the Old Testament died they went to one of two 'compartments' in Sheol - either paradise (Abraham's Bosom), or a place of torment. In which state were these Jews before their resurrection? |
Were they saved? Surely not. They say 'Our bones are dried, and our hope is lost: We are cut off for our parts.' Also God says that he must OPEN THEIR GRAVES and put His spirit into them so that they may KNOW HIM. Surely these people, prior to this resurrection, were not saved.
It appears that these Jews ended their lives lost, without knowing God. They were "unsaved" But if that's the case, then clearly they were not lost forever at the moment of their death as they are saved by God AFTER THEIR RESURRECTION.
This shows why mainstream Christianity cannot accept this passage at face value - it is utterly fatal to so much that they hold to be true. If this passage is literally true then they are wrong about the death state, they are wrong that one's eternal fate is sealed at the moment of their death, and they are wrong about the doctrine of eternal torment. However, by making the passage entirely symbolical they show themselves to be wholly arbitrary in their interpretation of scripture and expose their willingness to explain away a difficult passage when it clashes with their theology.
This passage presents us with a HOPE for the lost beyond the grave. Will you believe it?
It appears that these Jews ended their lives lost, without knowing God. They were "unsaved" But if that's the case, then clearly they were not lost forever at the moment of their death as they are saved by God AFTER THEIR RESURRECTION.
This shows why mainstream Christianity cannot accept this passage at face value - it is utterly fatal to so much that they hold to be true. If this passage is literally true then they are wrong about the death state, they are wrong that one's eternal fate is sealed at the moment of their death, and they are wrong about the doctrine of eternal torment. However, by making the passage entirely symbolical they show themselves to be wholly arbitrary in their interpretation of scripture and expose their willingness to explain away a difficult passage when it clashes with their theology.
This passage presents us with a HOPE for the lost beyond the grave. Will you believe it?
Theological Issues - Jude 7 with Matthew 10:15 and Ezekiel 16:48-55
Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them, in like manner giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire. (Jude7) |
I suggest that the passages shown to the left have rarely been considered together by most Christians. Here's how I learned to interpret these passages: I was taught that Jude 7 is a clear reference to 'hell'. The ancient inhabitants of Sodom are currently suffering the torments of hell, and they will be cast into the 'lake of fire' after the judgment to suffer for all eternity. I was told that Matthew 10:15 teaches that there are 'degrees of punishment in hell'. Although the inhabitants of Sodom will suffer horribly, those wicked cities which rejected Jesus will suffer even worse.
I never once heard anyone teach on Ezekiel 16. The first time I encountered Ezekiel 16 - 'I will restore the fortunes of Sodom' - I was perplexed and I did what many Christians do - I immediately reached for a commentary. From the Bible Knowledge Commentary (Dallas Theological Seminary) I found this: "I will restore the fortunes (blessings) of Sodom … and of Samaria … and your fortunes along with them. If God would restore Jerusalem, could He do any less for her more righteous sisters? Ezekiel was speaking of the national restoration of these cities in the Millennium. (Evidently Sodom will be rebuilt at that time.) Dyer, C. H. (1985). Ezekiel. In J. F. Walvoord & R. B. Zuck (Eds.), The Bible Knowledge Commentary: An Exposition of the Scriptures (Vol. 1, p. 1258). Victor Books. This my friends, is nonsense, and once again an example of how difficult passages are dismissed by the waive of a theological wand. The commentary is correct in its assessment that the passage is stating that if God restores the Jewish nation then he couldn't do less for Sodom who's sin was lesser by comparison.
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But how in the world would that have any meaningful fulfillment if the only thing meant by this prophecy is that only the city of Sodom will be rebuilt in the millennium? We are supposed to believe that the presence of a rebuilt city named Sodom will induce converted Jews in the millennium to a sense of shame and self-loathing?
In Ezekiel 37 considered above, God promises to restore the whole house of Israel and Judah by opening their graves and putting His spirit within them. In this passage God states that he will restore the fortunes of Sodom in their midst. Do you believe your Bible? Are you really willing to dismiss a passage such as this with an interpretation which reduces it to meaningless absurdity?
Look at Jesus' teaching on this very subject (Matt 10:15, 11:24, Mark 6:1, Luke 10:12). Isn't it clear that Jesus is expressing the very same thought given in Ezekiel 16? Strangely, Christians never seem to connect these two passages. Yes, they believe that Jesus is speaking about the PEOPLE of Sodom, not a rebuilt city. It is the PEOPLE of Sodom that are to have a more tolerable judgment than those PEOPLE in the Jewish cities who rejected his message. But by turning Jesus' teaching into 'degrees of punishment in hell' they have missed the obvious cross-reference to Ezekiel 16. In Matthew 10:15 we are supposed to believe Jesus is talking about the PEOPLE of Sodom (he is), but in Ezekiel 16, we are supposed to believe it is only a rebuilt CITY in view? Nonsense.
We have here a classic example of how the doctrines of man's inherent immortality and eternal torment have made the proper interpretation of these passages impossible. Matthew 10:15 IS NOT speaking of degrees of punishment in hell - There is no 'hell' in the passage. Jesus is talking about the 'day of judgment' - an age or ages following the resurrection. It is during this time that both the Jews, and the people of Sodom will be resurrected. In that time it will be more tolerable for Sodom than for those wicked Jews who rejected the light of Jesus' teaching.
As we saw above in Isaiah 32:13, and Ezekiel 16, the Jews were to be cast off FOR EVER, UNTIL the resurrection and God pours His spirit upon them. Likewise, the people of Sodom have suffered the vengeance of an 'ETERNAL fire' (See section Ia) UNTIL God restores their fortunes.
May God save us from careless handling of His word. See also A Scriptural Example of Eternal Fire
In Ezekiel 37 considered above, God promises to restore the whole house of Israel and Judah by opening their graves and putting His spirit within them. In this passage God states that he will restore the fortunes of Sodom in their midst. Do you believe your Bible? Are you really willing to dismiss a passage such as this with an interpretation which reduces it to meaningless absurdity?
Look at Jesus' teaching on this very subject (Matt 10:15, 11:24, Mark 6:1, Luke 10:12). Isn't it clear that Jesus is expressing the very same thought given in Ezekiel 16? Strangely, Christians never seem to connect these two passages. Yes, they believe that Jesus is speaking about the PEOPLE of Sodom, not a rebuilt city. It is the PEOPLE of Sodom that are to have a more tolerable judgment than those PEOPLE in the Jewish cities who rejected his message. But by turning Jesus' teaching into 'degrees of punishment in hell' they have missed the obvious cross-reference to Ezekiel 16. In Matthew 10:15 we are supposed to believe Jesus is talking about the PEOPLE of Sodom (he is), but in Ezekiel 16, we are supposed to believe it is only a rebuilt CITY in view? Nonsense.
We have here a classic example of how the doctrines of man's inherent immortality and eternal torment have made the proper interpretation of these passages impossible. Matthew 10:15 IS NOT speaking of degrees of punishment in hell - There is no 'hell' in the passage. Jesus is talking about the 'day of judgment' - an age or ages following the resurrection. It is during this time that both the Jews, and the people of Sodom will be resurrected. In that time it will be more tolerable for Sodom than for those wicked Jews who rejected the light of Jesus' teaching.
As we saw above in Isaiah 32:13, and Ezekiel 16, the Jews were to be cast off FOR EVER, UNTIL the resurrection and God pours His spirit upon them. Likewise, the people of Sodom have suffered the vengeance of an 'ETERNAL fire' (See section Ia) UNTIL God restores their fortunes.
May God save us from careless handling of His word. See also A Scriptural Example of Eternal Fire
Theological Issues - Romans 11:25-29 with Ezekiel 37:23-27, Psalm 14:7, Ezekiel 16:53-54, Ezekiel 39:25
For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in. And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob: For this is my covenant unto them, when I shall take away their sins. As concerning the gospel, they are enemies for your sakes: but as touching the election, they are beloved for the fathers’ sakes. For the gifts and calling of God are without repentance. (Romans 11:25-29) |
The verses shown to the left clearly teach the restoration of the WHOLE nation of Israel. Notice the words of the Apostle Paul:
“…All Israel shall be saved” Romans 11:26 And the words of the prophet Ezekiel:
“These bones are the whole house of Israel” Ezekiel 37:11 On their face, a fair reading of these texts teaches the ultimate salvation of Israel at some point in the future, namely when “The redeemer shall come out of Zion and shall turn ungodliness away from Jacob.” Romans 11:26. If many of the Jewish people died in ignorance, rebellion, or unbelief, and yet they will be saved at some future time then one thing is clear — their deaths could not have been the end of their opportunity for salvation, and much of what we are taught is in error. Of course, traditional and orthodox belief does not accept this conclusion and attempts to circumvent this great truth by one of two methods.
The first is known as “Replacement Theology”. This system of interpretation takes all of the promises made to natural Israel and applies their fulfillment spiritually to the New Testament Church. I do not believe that this is something that can be done without doing serious violence to the Biblical text. Romans 11 in particular shows how this view breaks down. Paul writes the entire chapter in order to answer the troubling question concerning Israel’s unbelief. The theme of the chapter clearly concerns the Jewish people. What would become of them since their hearts were hardened against the gospel? The climax comes in verses 25-32 where Paul speaks of their future restoration when Christ returns. It is impossible to spiritualize the references to Israel in this chapter and attempt to apply them to the Church. Nor is it possible that Paul in verses 25-32 is only speaking on the remnant of the Jewish people who have come to Christ in this age. That is the topic of verses 2-5. The question Paul is attempting to answer is the question of Israel’s general unbelief, and proceeds to show how it was the plan of God himself to temporarily blind the nation of Israel so that the Gospel would go to the gentiles. |
But this arrangement is not permanent. “All Israel shall be saved” when “the redeemed shall come out of Zion”. It is nearly impossible to miss the force of this argument. God clearly has a plan for the natural Jewish people, and it is an error to take all of these future promises and apply them to the New Testament Church.
The second system of interpretation, Dispensationalism, also attempts to circumvent the force of these verses. While dispensationalism recognizes the error of trying to spiritualize all Old and New Testament promises to Israel, and while they recognize that natural Jews and the nation of Israel are promised a future restoration, they are also guilty of twisting these passages. How so?
First, they are also guilty of spiritualizing passages such as Ezekiel 37. In that chapter God says four times that he will “open the graves” of the Jewish people and restore them by placing his spirit within them. Dispensationalists deny that this passage is referring to a literal resurrection and apply these scriptures to the recreation of the Jewish state in 1948. Thus, they believe that these verses refer only to a national restoration, not a literal resurrection.
In passages such as Romans 11:25-29 — “All Israel shall be saved” — they believe that this refers only to Jewish people living at the time of Christ’s return. They believe that he will convert all of the unbelieving Jews living at that time. But this is absurd. What happens to a Jewish unbeliever who dies one minute before the return of Jesus? Are we supposed to believe, as evangelicals and dispensationalist do, that this person is lost, and will burn forever in hell?
Notice that the verses to the left form a chain that most Christians never take time to consider together. Paul says that “The Redeemer shall come out of Zion and turn ungodliness away from Jacob.” This is the time in which the Jewish people will be saved. But notice that Paul here is quoting from Psalm 14:7:
“Oh, that salvation for Israel would come out of Zion! When the LORD restores the fortunes of his people, let Jacob rejoice, let Israel be glad.”
Notice this phrase — “Restores the fortunes of his people”. We have seen this verse above:
“I will restore their fortunes, both the fortunes of Sodom and her daughters, and the fortunes of Samaria and her daughters, and I will restore your own fortunes in their midst, that you may bear your disgrace and be ashamed of all that you have done, becoming a consolation to them. Ezekiel 16:53-54
Are these verses really only speaking of national restorations for those who happen to be alive at Christ’s return? Surely not. These passages are directly connected to the promises of restoration given to the Jewish nation in Ezekiel 37-39:
“ I will make a covenant of peace with them; it shall be an everlasting covenant with them: and I will place them, and multiply them, and will set my sanctuary in the midst of them for evermore. My tabernacle also shall be with them: yea, I will be their God, and they shall be my people.”
But as Ezekiel 37 makes clear, this is during the time when God OPENS THE GRAVES of the Jewish people and places His spirit within them.
So, what do we have?
These are facts which are easily discerned from the text but denied by those who seek to teach that there is any hope for the lost beyond the grave. Any system of interpretation which seeks to deny these facts does so only by twisting the scriptures; something they routinely accuse others of doing.
The Jewish people have been blinded during this age so that the Gospel could be preached to the Gentiles. The are however promised a future resurrection and restoration. Will you believe it, or deny it?
The second system of interpretation, Dispensationalism, also attempts to circumvent the force of these verses. While dispensationalism recognizes the error of trying to spiritualize all Old and New Testament promises to Israel, and while they recognize that natural Jews and the nation of Israel are promised a future restoration, they are also guilty of twisting these passages. How so?
First, they are also guilty of spiritualizing passages such as Ezekiel 37. In that chapter God says four times that he will “open the graves” of the Jewish people and restore them by placing his spirit within them. Dispensationalists deny that this passage is referring to a literal resurrection and apply these scriptures to the recreation of the Jewish state in 1948. Thus, they believe that these verses refer only to a national restoration, not a literal resurrection.
In passages such as Romans 11:25-29 — “All Israel shall be saved” — they believe that this refers only to Jewish people living at the time of Christ’s return. They believe that he will convert all of the unbelieving Jews living at that time. But this is absurd. What happens to a Jewish unbeliever who dies one minute before the return of Jesus? Are we supposed to believe, as evangelicals and dispensationalist do, that this person is lost, and will burn forever in hell?
Notice that the verses to the left form a chain that most Christians never take time to consider together. Paul says that “The Redeemer shall come out of Zion and turn ungodliness away from Jacob.” This is the time in which the Jewish people will be saved. But notice that Paul here is quoting from Psalm 14:7:
“Oh, that salvation for Israel would come out of Zion! When the LORD restores the fortunes of his people, let Jacob rejoice, let Israel be glad.”
Notice this phrase — “Restores the fortunes of his people”. We have seen this verse above:
“I will restore their fortunes, both the fortunes of Sodom and her daughters, and the fortunes of Samaria and her daughters, and I will restore your own fortunes in their midst, that you may bear your disgrace and be ashamed of all that you have done, becoming a consolation to them. Ezekiel 16:53-54
Are these verses really only speaking of national restorations for those who happen to be alive at Christ’s return? Surely not. These passages are directly connected to the promises of restoration given to the Jewish nation in Ezekiel 37-39:
“ I will make a covenant of peace with them; it shall be an everlasting covenant with them: and I will place them, and multiply them, and will set my sanctuary in the midst of them for evermore. My tabernacle also shall be with them: yea, I will be their God, and they shall be my people.”
But as Ezekiel 37 makes clear, this is during the time when God OPENS THE GRAVES of the Jewish people and places His spirit within them.
So, what do we have?
- The Jewish People are promised a restoration in which God restores their fortunes.
- This takes place when Jesus returns
- He restores the fortunes of the Jewish people by opening their graves and placing His spirit in them.
- Sodom will also be restored at this time.
These are facts which are easily discerned from the text but denied by those who seek to teach that there is any hope for the lost beyond the grave. Any system of interpretation which seeks to deny these facts does so only by twisting the scriptures; something they routinely accuse others of doing.
The Jewish people have been blinded during this age so that the Gospel could be preached to the Gentiles. The are however promised a future resurrection and restoration. Will you believe it, or deny it?
Romans 5:18
Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life. |
I remember the first time I read this verse and similar others in Romans chapter 5. I was confused. The first thing I did was call a friend and spiritual mentor to ask how it was that this passage did not teach the salvation of all. I was assured that this passage cannot mean what it so clearly appears to say because we know it can't.
That always stuck with me. The passage seems clear enough and I have never found any way around the force of Paul's argument. Because of Adam, all die. Because of Christ, all will be made alive. Because of Adam, judgment and condemnation came upon all. Because of Christ justification and life came upon all. |
It does not seem possible that the 'All' of the first category (Adam) could be anything other than the 'All' of the second category (Jesus). I have seen the theological "backflips and cartwheels" that some have engaged in to get around Paul's simple, yet powerful argument. These boil down to two: The Calvinist would say that the words apply only to the 'elect' for whom God has predestined their salvation from before the foundation of the world. The second, or arminian says that God has provided for the salvation of all, but it is only efficacious for those who accept God's free gift of salvation through Christ.
Given the context, I don't think either solution works. In both cases we end up with a very lopsided outcome. Both the Calvinists and Arminians believe that relatively few will ever be saved and that the vast majority of mankind will be lost forever. The 'All' in Adam turns out to be significantly more than the 'All' who will ever be in Christ. This cannot be correct. Paul's point is to show that Christ accomplishes so much more than was ever lost by Adam's transgression. Consider:
But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many. (Romans 5:15)
But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many. (Romans 5:15)
Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound: (Romans 5:20)
Christ cannot accomplish less than Adam; To the contrary, he accomplishes so much more than Adam. It doesn't seem possible to square this with the commonly held notion amongst Christians that most of mankind will be eternally lost forever.
When discussing the eventual reconciliation of all, I'm often asked where the Bible says any such thing. Well, here's one place. The force of these words hit me as a young Christian and have never left me. I have never found any way to adequately get around their obvious meaning other than what was suggested by my friend all those years ago: "It doesn't mean what it appears to say because we know it can't".
Given the context, I don't think either solution works. In both cases we end up with a very lopsided outcome. Both the Calvinists and Arminians believe that relatively few will ever be saved and that the vast majority of mankind will be lost forever. The 'All' in Adam turns out to be significantly more than the 'All' who will ever be in Christ. This cannot be correct. Paul's point is to show that Christ accomplishes so much more than was ever lost by Adam's transgression. Consider:
But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many. (Romans 5:15)
But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many. (Romans 5:15)
Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound: (Romans 5:20)
Christ cannot accomplish less than Adam; To the contrary, he accomplishes so much more than Adam. It doesn't seem possible to square this with the commonly held notion amongst Christians that most of mankind will be eternally lost forever.
When discussing the eventual reconciliation of all, I'm often asked where the Bible says any such thing. Well, here's one place. The force of these words hit me as a young Christian and have never left me. I have never found any way to adequately get around their obvious meaning other than what was suggested by my friend all those years ago: "It doesn't mean what it appears to say because we know it can't".
SECTION TO BE CONTINUIED
