Eschatology and the Doctrine of Eternal Torment - A Principle of Paramount Importance

The Law and Prophets were until John the Baptist

In my first post, I pointed out how any understanding concerning the final and ultimate fate of the unsaved needs to be understood within a much wider prophetic context.  In my last post I illustrated how this principle applies to a proper understanding of the Greek word Gehenna (often translated "hell") as used by Jesus.  A comparison of Jeremiah chapter 19 and Matthew chapter 33 shows that Gehenna was used to represent national judgment.  In both contexts that judgment was to bring desolation upon the Jewish people and nation.  In neither case was there any reference to eternal torment in the afterlife.

At the end of my former post I stated that there is much more to explore as to precisely when and how Jesus' warning of the "judgment of Gehenna ("damnation of hell")" was to be fulfilled.  However, before moving on to that, it's vital that we explore a principle of prophetic interpretation which is often missed; namely, that scripture presents us with more than one eschatological horizon, and that failure to discern this principle has been the root cause of untold confusion.

As I've mentioned before, the interpretation of prophecy, and particularly those passages which deal with final judgment, usually fall within two "schools" of thought.  The futurist view tends to see all passages pertaining to judgment (such as those concerning Gehenna) as having their ultimate fulfillment at the end of this current age.  On the opposite end of the spectrum, the full, or hyper-preterist view sees the same passages as having already been fulfilled before, or with the destruction of Jerusalem in the first century A.D.

While both camps have what, at least to themselves, appear to be compelling reasons for holding these views, I can't help but think that they are both equally the product of ignorance concerning the principle I stated above - Scripture can, and does present us with more than one eschatological horizon.

When a hyper-preterist encounters any passage referencing the "end of the age" they will reflexively interpret that language  as pertaining to the end of the Jewish economy which found its fulfillment nearly twenty centuries ago.  When a futurist encounters the same language, they will do precisely the opposite, and interpret the passage as pertaining to events yet unfulfilled.  However, if the scriptures do in fact present us with more than one eschatological horizon, then when encountering "end of the age" language in scripture, our first task must be to determine from the context which age the passage is referring to.

Now, there can be little question that when using Gehenna as an emblem of national judgment, Jesus was using the word in the context of the end of the Jewish age.  But from that, does it necessarily follow that ALL passages concerning judgment pertain only to the end of the Jewish age?  Equally, if a passage concerning judgment can be shown from the context to pertain to the end of this current wicked age, are we then justified in ignoring a context which points to a strictly first century fulfillment? Surely not.  The scriptures can, and do point to more than one eschatological horizon. Futurists have largely failed to discern the scriptural importance attached to the fall of Jerusalem and the end of the Jewish dispensation, and therefore miss entirely the proper application of many prophetic passages.  On the other hand, hyper-preterists have illegitimately inflated the importance of those same events to the point where they feel burdened to locate the fulfillment of all prophetic events within that period.  Both are equally errant.

Jesus Provides a Key

As I've stated before, Jesus is our infallible interpreter.  When it comes to discerning whether or not a prophecy pertains to the end of the current, or of the Jewish age, Jesus has given us an important key:

The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it. (Luke 16:16)

In this we find two distinct dispensations. First, "The Law and Prophets", which represent the whole of the Jewish economy along with the temple worship and system of animal sacrifice. The law and prophets were preached up until the time of John the Baptist.  From that time forward, first Jesus, and then his apostles and disciples preached the Kingdom of God.  Notice again :

And from the days of John the Baptist until now the kingdom of heaven suffereth violence, and the violent take it by force. For all the prophets and the law prophesied until John. (Matthew 11:12–13)

The preaching of John the Baptist marks a pivot point between two dispensations.  The old covenant of the law and prophets was a coming to an end to be superseded by the preaching of the God's kingdom.

Let the reader mark this well:  Things pertaining to the "law and prophets" are not the same as things pertaining to the Kingdom of God.  A new dispensation of the Kingdom of God began from the time of John the Baptist.  The beginning of one dispensation is not the beginning of the other, nor does the end of one dispensation mark the end of the other.  The end of the Jewish dispensation must not be conflated with the end of the kingdom dispensation.

Why is this so important?  Because students of scripture have routinely confused two distinct things. The language of any passage which then concerns the end of the Jewish dispensation must not automatically be applied as though it has any reference to the end of the dispensation which succeeded it - that in which the kingdom began to be preached.  The inverse is also true.  If we encounter any passage which speaks of the end of that dispensation which began with the preaching of the kingdom, we must not automatically apply that language to the end of the Jewish dispensation.  There are two distinct eschatological horizons in view!

Notice the words of John the Baptist:

Then went out to him (John the Baptist) Jerusalem, and all Judea, and all the region round about Jordan, and were baptized of him in Jordan, confessing their sins. But when he saw many of the Pharisees and Sadducees come to his baptism, he said unto them, O generation of vipers, who hath warned you to flee from the wrath to come? (Matthew 3:5–7)

Who is John speaking to?  Is it not to those of the Jewish dispensation whose end was fast approaching? When many believers encounter the words "the wrath to come", their minds automatically assume that John was speaking of "hell".  But that is not at all what is in view here.  John is warning the scribes and Pharisees of the  fast approaching and cataclysmic end of Jewish dispensation!

However, when Jesus stated: 

"The kingdom of heaven is likened unto a man which sowed good seed in his field: but while men slept, his enemy came and sowed tares among the wheat, and went his way." (Matthew 13:24 - 25)

And concluded his parable with:

"Let both grow together until the harvest: and in the time of harvest I will say to the reapers, Gather ye together first the tares, and bind them in bundles to burn them: but gather the wheat into my barn."(Matthew 13:30)

We can be certain that Jesus is not here referring to the end of the Jewish age.  The law and the prophets were until John the Baptist, only since that time was the kingdom preached.  Here, as in all such "parables of the kingdom", Jesus is referring to the end of the age in which the kingdom is preached.  Failure to discern this simple principle is sure to result in nothing but confusion.  A "fire" may be a symbol of judgment used for both the end of the Jewish age, and also for the end of our current age, but that does not mean both passages are referencing the same eschatological horizon.  Likewise, the image of a "harvest" may be used for both the end of the Jewish age as well as our current age.  But  it does not follow that the two events are identical in regard to their time of fulfillment.  Prophecies concerning the end of the Jewish age are to be distinguished from prophecies concerning our current age. Whenever Jesus begins by stating; "The kingdom of heaven is like...", we can be certain that he is not speaking of the end of the Jewish dispensation!

Jesus explained the parable of the wheat and the tares:

"As therefore the tares are gathered and burnt in the fire; so shall it be in the end of this age. The Son of man shall send forth his angels, and they shall gather out of his kingdom all things that offend, and them which do iniquity; and shall cast them into a furnace of fire: there shall be wailing and gnashing of teeth. Then shall the righteous shine forth as the sun in the kingdom of their Father. Who hath ears to hear, let him hear." (Matthew 13:40–43)

To which age is Jesus referring? Jesus cannot here be referring to the end of the Jewish dispensation.  The law and the prophets were until that John the Baptist, from that time the Kingdom of God was preached.  The cataclysmic end of the Jewish dispensation has nothing to do with Jesus gathering the counterfeit tares from out of HIS KINGDOM to be burned.  

By contrast, notice again when John the Baptist stated:

"Bring forth therefore fruits meet for repentance: and think not to say within yourselves, We have Abraham to our father: for I say unto you, that God is able of these stones to raise up children unto Abraham. And now also the axe is laid unto the root of the trees: therefore every tree which bringeth not forth good fruit is hewn down, and cast into the fire." (Matthew 3:8–10)

Or:

"Whose fan is in his hand, and he will throughly purge his floor, and gather his wheat into the garner; but will burn up the chaff with unquenchable fire." (Matthew 3:12)

Again, to whom is John speaking but to those of the Jewish ecomiony which was about to be destroyed. We can then be certain that this warning pertains to the end of the Jewish dispensation in spite of the mental reflex on the part of believers to apply this language to "hell".

But when Jesus states...

"For the kingdom of heaven is as a man travelling into a far country, who called his own servants, and delivered unto them his goods. And unto one he gave five talents, to another two, and to another one; to every man according to his several ability; and straightway took his journey. Then he that had received the five talents went and traded with the same, and made them other five talents. And likewise he that had received two, he also gained other two. But he that had received one went and digged in the earth, and hid his lord’s money. After a long time the lord of those servants cometh, and reckoneth with them." (Matthew 25:14–19)

​"And cast ye the unprofitable servant into outer darkness: there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth." (Matthew 25:30)

...By simply applying our interpretive principle - the law and prophets were until John, since that time the KINGDOM is preached - we can be certain that the conclusion of this parable is not speaking of the end of the Jewish dispensation., but of our current age ; that age which began with the preaching of the kingdom.

These examples I've given present us with two distinct prophetic and eschatological horizons.  Many (if not most) Christians conflate these and apply the language of both to "hell"; or in the case of preterists,  to the destruction of Jerusalem in the first century.  Both have failed to discern that two distinct dispensations and prophetic horizons are in view.

I cannot overstate the importance of this principle.  In my next installment I will take up perhaps the most important prophetic discourse in all scripture; one upon which hangs the proper interpretation of nearly every other prophetic passage.  In that discourse we will encounter both the end of the Jewish dispensation as well as the end of the current age.  As we will see, the errors of both Futurism and Hyper-Preterism have resulted from a failure to discern within that discourse a distinction between these two distinct prophetic horizons.